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 At first I didn't believe him till he wrote and all down, it actually make sense if you take it step by step. • a = b Suppose a=1 and b=1 • a+a = a+b Add 'a' to both sides • 2a = a+b a+a=2a (1+1=2*a) • 2a-2b = a+b-2b Subtract 2b from both sides • 2(a-b) = a+b-2b 2a-2b = 2(a-b) • 2(a-b) = a-b b-2b = -b (1-2=-1) • 2 = 1 Divide both sides by a-b Now this statement is FALSE, I would have you post your comments about why YOU think it's wrong but you have the internet as a tool so what's the use? I will save you the time from looking it up and tell you why it's wrong. Notice the very last step: Divide both sides by a-b This is impossible when a and b are converted into numbers: Divide both sides by 1-1 You should know already that it is impossible to divide any number by 0. Since this is algebra it is correct and incorrect at the same time, just depends on your point of view I guess... Poll - I have proof that 2=1
6%
10 votes This is cool!
28%
42 votes Lame
47%
70 votes I knew the answer! (Because I'm smart, I cheated, I saw this already, etc etc.)
17%
25 votes I'm confused...
Replies
New Blog: A lot of you are crap
WOW FAIL LOLOL!
IF a=1 and b=1 THEN YOUR EQUATION WOULD BE a=a or b=b NOT a=b because youre using different variables you can't assume a=1 and b=1 until it is solved, so it was obvious frrom the start a =/= b okay, so a = b, where a = 1.
1 = 1 a + 1 = b + 1 ; 2 = 2 2a = a + 1 ; 2 = 2 2 - 2 = 0 0 = 0 you just proved that 0 = 0 and 1+1 = 3, nerd...
If a=b then a-b should be 0 so every statement with a-b is negated because you can't divide with zero
Why are so many people saying that two variables cannot be the same? That is complete nonsense...
jamflan: Why are so many people saying that two variables cannot be the same? That is complete nonsense... Some people cannot be called mathematicians, if that word exist. Someone said that a = b is not correct, but it is. He said if (and only if) a = 1 and b =1 a = b Which is obviously correct, since a = b Anyone who denies that, is an idiot. jerryjerry: WOW FAIL LOLOL! IF a=1 and b=1 THEN YOUR EQUATION WOULD BE a=a or b=b NOT a=b because youre using different variables you can't assume a=1 and b=1 until it is solved, so it was obvious frrom the start a =/= b if youre doing polynomials, you can. and if a = 1 and b = 1 then a = b because 1 = 1 Satoshi1234: if youre doing polynomials, you can. and if a = 1 and b = 1 then a = b because 1 = 1 It seems that 99% of basilers fail to understand that variables can be equal jerryjerry: WOW FAIL LOLOL! IF a=1 and b=1 THEN YOUR EQUATION WOULD BE a=a or b=b NOT a=b because youre using different variables you can't assume a=1 and b=1 until it is solved, so it was obvious frrom the start a =/= b It's called the transitive property. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transitive_property Let a = 1, b = 1: a = 1 = b a = b That's like literally a 6th grade concept. jamflan: It seems that 99% of basilers fail to understand that variables can be equal yay for being that 1% lol Satoshi1234: yay for being that 1% lol My thoughts EXACTLY xD I can prove 0 = 0 f3
z = a + bi 0 = -z + a + bi 0 = -a - bi + a + bi 0 = 0 Register / login
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also, derp, math fallacies.